366) A 59 year old woman is evaluated in your office for vaginal bleeding. The patient has not had a menstrual period for the past eight years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. Over the past 6 months she has had several episodes of spotting. The bleeding is more pronounced after sexual activity. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding?
A) Endometrial Carcinoma
B) Endometrial Hyperplasia
C) Cervical polyps
D) Vaginal Atrophy
E) Fibroids
Archer USMLE Step 3 and Internal medicine blogs are the products of highly successful Archer USMLE reviews. These blogs are run by board-certified teaching physicians. From time to time, several evidence based guidelines on disease management strategies and patient care will be posted and discussed here to help USMLE Step 3 examinees and those appearing for Internal Medicine Boards. These include the areas of medicine that are highly tested on USMLE 3 as well as Internal medicine board exams.